(Note: When I say “Winkel”, I’m referring to NGS’s vertically-expanded version of Winkel-Tripel.)
Yes, it's great that the Robinson mapmaker knows his version of the Robinson projection. But wouldn't it be kinda nice if he would share it with his public?… It has been pointed out (sorry, I don't have the citations) that those numerical scores are hardly worth the paper that they're written on. If a map has a high score, and looks like crap to a lot of people, what does the score mean? Appearance and aesthetics aren't about numerical scores.
You cannot have it both ways. If you cannot tell the difference between two Robinson maps by looking at them, then the only significance to your complaint about not knowing the interpolation function would be for analytical purposes.
Yes, it isn’t about the maps’ appearance, because, as you point out, the Robinson versions are identical.in appearance.
Then what is it about? It’s a suggestion that it would be good to state a map’s projection.
In part, you can consider it an aesthetic consideration. But it’s an aesthetic consideration that has nothing to do with map-appearance, and is unrelated to, and doesn’t contradict, my questioning of the worth of measuring good-appearance or merit by someone’s numerical score consisting of some weighted average of distortions.
But it isn’t only aesthetic: If it’s necessary to convert between lat/lon and X/Y on that published map, I’d prefer to do so in terms of the projection that was used to construct the map—silly me :^)
You say it might not make any practical difference? “Might not” isn’t good enough. I don’t want to have to take someone’s word for that.
But you have disclaimed the importance of analytics in the design.
Incorrect. I’ve disclaimed the meaningfulness of someone’s weighted-average numerical score as a measure of how good a map looks, or how good it is for the general public. As I said, appearance-aesthetics isn’t about numerical scores.
Below, you want to say that that somehow contradicts my wish that a map’s projection be disclosed, whether for aesthetic or practical reasons, as mentioned above.
[Y]our arguments contradict each other.
I commend you for that bold reach. Preferring a genuinely defined and stated map projection doesn’t contradict not recognizing the meaningfulness of someone’s arbitrary weighted average of some set of distortions as a measure of a map’s good appearance, usefulness, or merit.
and seem contrived merely to avoid backing down from an ad hoc accretion of preferences promoted as somehow more objective than they are.
“Ad hoc”? That means, “made up only for this particular purpose or instance” (such as evaluating Robinson or Winkel).
No, I’d object to any “projection” that isn’t specified, defined. Not just Robinson. And I regard any unnecessary, particularly blatant, shape-distortion as being really unappealing aesthetically-- in general, not just for Winkel.
So it isn’t entirely clear what you mean by “ad hoc”.
As for “objective”, you know that I’ve been repeatedly emphasizing that aesthetic preferences are a subjective individual matter. But my suggestion that projections should be defined _does_ have objective merit. Ugly shapes? That’s subjective. A distorted continent-shape that seems revolting to me, might be beautiful to you.
But yes, I’ll say now that I suggest that there _is_ some objective merit to my claims about shape-accuracy vs areal-fidelity.
1. I claim that a somewhat wrong shape is a lot more noticeable than a somewhat incorrect area-relationship (say, the amount of areal infidelity that would be caused by fixing the shape-distortion)..
2. I claim that it’s pointless and silly to make an issue about the areal relationship between continent, country or island representations that, due to their shape distortion, don’t resemble what they’re supposed to represent. …and, just about (in Winkel and Peters), are only identifiable by their labeling, and relative positions.
…unless you specifically want an area-cartogram, disregardful of shape as are all cartograms.
3. I claim that, even if noticed, areal-infidelity is neither ugly, anti-useful, nor objectionable. Map-users shouldn’t expect a flat world map to be free of all distortions. But grossly and unnecessarily distorted shapes are what’s ugly, not incorrect sizes.
4. Areal-infidelity needn’t be unfair, and needn’t be regarded as shrinking or taking area away area from the places not magnified. For example, in Eckert III, a region on the equator gets its fair share of the available X-width, because the X scale is constant on each parallel, including the equator. And, because the north-south scale at the equator is equal to the scale along the equator, that equatorial place also gets the amount of Y-height that is right for it. Thus, no one can rightly claim that an equatorial place is somehow cheated or shorted when Greenland is magnified. Yes, Greenland is magnified, but not by shrinking Ecuador, not at Ecuador’s expense.
Sure, there are special applications where equal-area is needed, and I’ve more than once made it clear that, when equal-area is needed, and when it requires shape-distortion, obviously that shape-distortion is justified. I gave Eckert IV as an example, and Mollweide. Even Gall-Peters, though I personally wouldn’t wall-display it.
In fact, I also said that Winkel’s vertical expansion, distortions and all, is justifiable for the goal of making the map bigger, to make better use of available page-space. …but that doesn’t mean we have to pretend that it looks good. As I said, I personally wouldn’t choose distortion-causing 1-dimensional expansion for making the map bigger, because I feel that the shape-distortion tends to make it harder to find things in the map, somewhat defeating the purpose of making the map bigger.
Likewise, I’ve acknowledged that Winkel’s better representation of Antarctica could justify its use for someone to whom that is important.
But there are equal-area maps, such as Hammer-Aitoff, whose shape-distortion is at the map’s periphery and doesn’t look bad, because it merely enhances the map’s realistic globular appearance. …and whose Antarctica is better, in size, shape and appearance, than that of Winkel.
I’ve said that what’s ugly to me might be beautiful to you. You’ve portrayed me as a connoisseur of Africas. What might such a connoisseur say, to perhaps explain Winkel’s actual emotional appeal to NGS?:
“For Africa, Winkel achieves a nice pointed effect, with distinct notes reminiscent of fine old maps of 15th and 16th century vintage, picturesquely distorted due to the usual unavailability of accurate longitudes during those classic vintage years.”
I don't claim to use or encounter all map projections. But, with the exception of Robinson's, the specifics of all projections can be found, are available to the public.
Not so. Dietrich (Grundzüge der allgemeinen Wirtschaftsgeographie', 1927) published a thematic map on an unknown epicycloidal, evidently equal-area projection that Kitada (1958) derived an approximation for in absence of any published information. Bertin, famous for his monumental Semiology of Graphics (Sémiologie graphique) published maps on several projections that have not been described anywhere that I have found. Many 16th century maps have no known construction methods…
Thankfully they aren’t among the maps that we frequently encounter.
And no, it isn't just me. Several cartographers agree with me that Peters' projection looks really bad due to its distortion of those two continents for which shape distortion is particularly noticible--Africa and South America.
Firstly, I never argued in favor of Peters, so this is a straw man. You keep bringing up Peters as if Peters is the equal-area alternative. It‘s not
Yes, I emphasize that t there are many other equal-area projections. But Peters is the natural, famous, spokesman and swimsuit-model for what can happen to shapes.
As you mentioned, Peters is the extreme example of blatant and prominent shape-distortion. Peters is the champion.
Admittedly, Winkel and Robinson aren’t as “FUBAR” as Peters. …but there’s no shame in coming in 2nd and 3rd.
But I probably implied that you were a Peters fan, and for that I apologize.
Secondly, the consideration is one of extremes, not absolutes. Gall–Peters is extreme. Robinson is not, and this is where you have another case of self-contradictory cherry-picking. It was Robinson who tendered the famous complaint about the Gall–Peters, “like wet long johns hanging on the line”. While he objected to the Peters portrayal, obviously he does not share your fanaticism for a precise-looking Africa.
You aren’t being entirely clear with us regarding what my cherry-picking contradiction is.
I thought that I clarified that it isn’t only about Africa. I criticize any and all blatant, prominent, and unnecessary shape-distortions, even when they aren’t of Africa.
But maybe it would be a good idea to add to, clarify, what I said before, about Africa and South America:
Africa and South America are continents, good-size landmasses. Big enough to be prominent and very noticeable. But small enough that it’s clear (by looking at a globe or a satellite photo) what their shape should look like. In contrast, for example, the Pacific Ocean, or even Eurasia, covers so much globe that it isn’t as easy to say when it’s shape is well or poorly portrayed on a flat map. A little shape distortion of the Pacific Ocean or Eurasia won’t be noticed.
But Africa and South America are small enough so that, as I said, it’s clear, from a globe or satellite photo, what their shape should look like. That was brought out by a cartographer, in the Peters debate, when Peters-advocates tried to weasel out of the matter of shape.
Further, Africa’s and South America’s positions on the equator (but particularly Africa of course, which is more centered on the equator) place them particularly prominently in front of the map-user.
Being on the equator enhances the importance of their shapes for an additional reason: It means that their shape will be well-portrayed in any of the various maps that are conformal at the equator, meaning that Winkel’s or Robinson’s distortion of them, in comparison to those equator-conformal maps’ less-distorted representation, will be more blatantly obvious.
Is Africa more important than South America in those regards? Maybe a little, for two reasons:
1. As I mentioned above, Africa is more centered on the equator, so that what I said above about equatorial-ness applies even more to Africa, as compared to South America.
1a) That matters because, as I mentioned, comparison to a map that’s conformal at the equator makes it more difficult for Winkel or Robinson to get away with distortion there.
1b) Equatorial centering places a continent more prominently in front of you.
2. Many world maps have longitude 0, the Greenwich meridian, as their central meridian. That places Africa more in the middle of the map. That makes a difference for two reasons:
2a) It places Africa more prominently.
2b) If the map has curved meridians, they’re usually less curved near the central meridian, with the result that a continent near that meridian will be more un-distorted. Again, that comparison with that more un-distorted representation (on maps that don’t distort the equatorial regions) makes it more difficult for Winkel and Robinson to get away with their shape-distortions.
So, I don’t mean to show favoritism for Africa. It’s just that, for the above-stated reasons, its distortion on Winkel and Robinson particularly stand out.
Robinson had a lot more considerations in mind than Africa
See above.
…when he created his projection. It just may be that his eye for geography was a lot more trained than yours, and the myriad distortions I keep point out…
One, actually; “Areal infidelity”. You also claim that long distance ruler-measurements on the map are more accurate on Winkel, and I suppose we could call that a distortion-comparison too, bring the total up to two. I’ll comment on your long-distance ruler measurement claim below in this reply. (Briefly, measurement on a map is a silly and inaccurate way to determine great-circle or loxodrome distances).
…that you keep claiming are not noticeable were in fact noticeable to him, to me, to map publishers, to geographers, and to many other people.
Then maybe Winkel is for highly-sophisticated people like you, who better notice a little areal-infidelity, and who understand the great importance of areal-fidelity (I must admit that its great general importance escapes me).
It’s fine you have preferences. It’s not fine that you insist those preferences are shared by “most people”
Wrong. I said that I can’t prove what I said about other people’s preferences. But I supported my claims in numbered statements above in this reply. And I said that one would hope that the experts’ sophisticated knowledge of what matters for map users is informed by surveys of map users.
or that they have some greater objectivity or legitimacy than other preferences. They don’t.
In some numbered statements above in this reply, I supported some claims of mine. I suggest that my numbered arguments were reasonable, and even uncontroversial.
So, yes, I _do_ claim that those arguments have some objective validity.
Additionally, though, sure, I’ve also been making (clearly-labeled) expressions of subjective impressions.
But let me be explicit, here, about my message to other map-users:
If an authoritatively-touted map seems ugly, overly shape-distorted, lacking in justification, or otherwise objectionable…maybe it is.
…despite assurances that it possesses some subtle, esoteric, arcane, but important, merits that you’re just not sophisticated enough to notice or appreciate the great importance of.
When people say that a problem doesn't have an exact solution, they usually mean that it doesn't have a solution that can be written in closed form… When someone tells you that a solution requires the use of numerical methods, they don't mean that you have to press the square root key.
Given that I have a formal education in numerical methods and thirty-five years’ experience in the topic, I’m not inclined to debate this stuff. You meant “closed-form”, not “exact” , it turns out
Yeah here are some links to references about that. Below each link is a quote of a relevant passage not too far from the top of the page linked to:
http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions.htm
“Exact (closed-form) solutions to mathematical equations play an important role in the proper understanding of qualitative features of many phenomena and processes in various areas of natural science.”
http://ocw.usu.edu/Civil_and_Environmen ... Matlab.pdf
“We will present the Newton-Raphson algorithm, and the secant method. In the secant
method we need to provide two initial values of x to get the algorithm started. In the
Newton-Raphson methods only one initial value is required.
[continuing the quote in its next paragraph]
Because the solution is not exact, the algorithms for any of the methods presented herein
will not provide the exact solution to the equation f(x) = 0, instead, we will stop the
algorithm when the equation is satisfied within an allowed tolerance or error, ε. In
mathematical terms this is expressed as
|f(xR)| < ε.”
[conclusion of links and quotes from them]
No doubt you have a different definition of “exact solution”, in sentences like “That equation doesn’t have an exact solution.” I’m not saying that your definition (whatever it is) is wrong. But the way that the above-quoted authors use that term, the way that the authors I’ve read use that term—I suggest that you’re going out on a limb when you say that they’re incorrect.
Usage differs. Many, including expert authors, use “that equation doesn’t have an exact solution” to mean “That equation doesn’t have a solution (‘an answer or, more specifically, a set of numbers that satisfy the equation’) that can be written in closed form, in terms of numbers, symbolically-indicated arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and exponentiation), and symbolically-indicated elementary functions (exponential, trig, hyperbolic, and their inverses).”
Don’t confuse an exact _numerical evaluation_ with an exact _symbolic indication _ of a solution. The square root of two, or the tangent of .53 radians, can’t be exactly written out as a decimal number, but it can be exactly symbolically indicated by 2^.5, or tan(.53)
“Exact” has a dictionary meaning that you can’t really call incorrect. I won’t quote it here, because you can look it up. By that commonly, universally, accepted meaning of “exact”, it’s plain that 1.414, or any further expansion of it, isn’t an exact statement of the square root of two. And it’s likewise plain that 2^.5 is an exact specification of a value that’s the square root of two.
By that universally-accepted meaning of “exact”, a solution in closed form, as described above, is an exact solution. And anything gotten by (e.g.) the Newton-Raphson method, isn’t exact, though it’s closer than was the previous iteration.
Sure, you could say that the instruction to solve an equation by bisection indirectly specifies an exact value of that equation’s solution, because it indicates an (unknowable) value that bisection gets closer and closer to. You could say that such an instruction indicates that exact value as well as does 2^.5, if the equation is x^2 = 2
But it’s understood that, when most people say “an exact solution”, the above paragraph isn’t what they mean.
So let’s not be so critical of definitions other than our own.
Definitions are not solipsistic. Whether or not something affects you does not change the generally agreed-upon definition.
See above, regarding the generally agreed-upon and used definition.
The person who implemented the programming behind that square root key used a numerical method to do it.
See above. No one denies that the square-root key’s programmer used a numerical method. But you yourself don’t do the work of using a numerical method when you press the square root key. He did the work so that you won’t have to.
“Closed-form” is not synonymous with “exact”
Evidently not all authors agree with you.
No one’s criticizing your (unstated) definition of “That equation doesn’t have an exact solution.”
But maybe your definition isn’t the only valid or widely-used one? In fact maybe it isn’t as widely used as the one that you criticize.
I must admit that I have no idea what else “That equation doesn’t have an exact solution.” would mean, other than the meaning used by the above-quoted authors, and stated above by me. But that doesn’t mean that I’m saying your definition (whatever it is) is wrong.
and “numerical method” is not synonymous with “approximation”.
Define as you wish, but a numerical method (when it works) gives an increasingly close approximation to a problem’s solution (defined by Merriam-Webster as its answer or, specifically for an equation, a set of numbers that satisfies the equation).
Whether the numerical method, itself, is the approximation is a philosophical or lexographic issue, on which I tend to agree with you. The numerical method itself is not the approximation. The approximation is what you get when you use the numerical method.
If you want a great-circle distance, or a loxodrome distance, then calculate it rather than measuring it on a map… Instead of stating a nominal scale, intended to be used for the whole map, it would be much better to state the distance, in miles, between the graticule parallels.
Sorry; I find that argument silly.
Sorry, but namecalling, though a common Internet behavior, doesn’t have any value as an argument or way of bolstering an opinion, though it’s often used for that purpose.
North-south distances aren’t more special than other directions.
Actually, on the contrary, north-south distances _are_ “more special” than other directions, on the lat/lon grid.
Here’s the explanation: Parallels aren’t all of the same length. Parallels at higher latitudes are shorter than parallels at lower latitudes. Consequently, the miles per degree of longitude varies considerably, with latitude.
But the meridians are all (nearly) of the same length. What that means is that miles per degree of latitude, measured along a meridian, is nearly the same everywhere on the Earth. (Actually it isn’t entirely invariable, because of the Earth’s oblateness—but close enough for most purposes).
That’s what makes north-south distances, on the lat/lon grid, special. It can be said that a degree of latitude, measured along a meridian, is about 69 miles. …everywhere, with only a little variation at different latitudes.
A map’s “nominal scale” stated at the bottom margin of the map, will be way off in some parts of the map. But, at any graticule quadrangle, if it’s a 10 degree graticule, the distance along a meridian between one graticule parallel and the next, will be about 690 or 691 miles.
And that makes for a better, more useful and accurate scale. Use that distance between two graticule parallels, measured along a meridian, as the map-scale, for measuring or estimating distances in the graticule quadrangle bordered by that measured meridian-distance.
Of course that’s a lot more useful on a conformal projection, because, with a conformal projection, at every point, the scale is the same in every direction.
For measuring world map distances (Route-distances, as opposed to great-circle or loxodrome distances, are the only ones that need to be measured on a map) use a conformal map.
Choosing any other world map for measuring distances (other than a few special distances, from one or a two special points on certain special maps such as Azimuthal Equidistant or 2-Point Equidistant) would be really silly.
I hope that I’ve explained that well.
And this is just another case of having it both ways. If distances are important, you say, then calculate them rather than measure them off a map.
Yes.
But now suddenly some distances—the special ones you like—are important to be able to measure off a map.
Some distances can pretty much only be gotten by measuring on a map. I’m referring to route-distances, along some circuituous route that isn’t a great-circle or a loxodrome.
But if you’re referring to north-south distances between graticule parallels, they _are_ special, and I _do_ like them for their usefulness as scale-indications. They’re certainly useful, and important for that reason, for indicating a relatively accurate scale in the graticule quadrangles that they border.
But that in no way contradicts my suggestion that great-circle distances and loxodrome distances are better calculated than measured.
Maybe you don’t want to calculate a great-circle distance. Or maybe you don’t have a nearby calculator or computer. So measure it on a globe. Maybe you don’t have a globe either. Then use a calculator, computer, or globe at the library, or at school, or at a friend’s house.
Of course, if you’re near a computer, the Internet has distance-calculating websites.
But suppose that you aren’t near a calculator, computer or globe, but you _are_ near a map. You want the distance right away, instead of waiting till you can get to a calculator, computer or globe. So you measure it on the map. For the sake of your measurement’s accuracy, let’s hope your map uses a conformal projection. To measure a distance in a certain graticule quadrangle, judge the scale in that quadrangle by measuring, as I described above, the distance along a meridian bordering that graticule quadrangle, between the graticule parallels bordering that graticule quadrangle.
(Below, the discussion is about Winkel’s long-distance ruler-measurement of distances being more accurate than those made on other maps)
Better than Goode's Homolosine, or Interrupted Sinusoidal?
Interruption is yet another kind of distortion. Those gaps are distances. You can’t just pretend they don’t exist.
…but you can correctly say that they aren’t part of the map. They aren’t distortions, because they aren’t even part of the map. That’s been pointed out by cartographer authors.
Dealing with them implies knowing the great circle route.
Certainly, as you suggest, any route that crosses an interruption will be difficult to follow on the map, won’t be as clear as it would be on an uninterrupted map. But that can be dealt with somewhat. Some interrupted school-maps have numbering along the interruptions, so that a route can be picked up at the other side of the interruption. Of course you must ensure that the resumed route crosses the interrupting meridian at the same angle as it did on the other side of the interruption. But sure, I won’t deny that routes that cross an interruption are difficult.
And, anyway, even on an interrupted map, the scale variation is a lot, and so I don’t suggest measurements on interrupted maps as a good way to determine distances.
If you want a route-distance, or if you want a quickly measured or estimated great-circle or loxodrome distance that uses only a nearby map, then use a conformal projection. Winkel Tripel isn't a conformal projection, and therefore would be a poor choice for measuring distances.
I have no idea what you mean by a “nearby map”
A “nearby map” is a map that isn’t very spatially-distant from you.
In particular, I’m referring to a map that is significantly nearer to you, and more convenient for you to get the use of, than any calculator, computer, or globe.
but this argument is apples-to-oranges. Winkel tripel is near the best for a random selection of distances of random lengths.
But measuring great-circle or loxodrome distances on a world map would really be silly. It’s a ridiculously inaccurate way of determining distances.
Conformal maps are useless for long distances.
Incorrect.
Conformal maps are the only ones worth considering for measuring long or short distances on a world map. (But as I said, the only distances that should be measured on a world map are route-distances, on routes that aren’t great-circles or loxodromes).
Maling pointed out the obvious better suitability of conformal maps for measuring distances on a map (if the mapped region, and the distances measured, are such that the departures from conformality are large enough to make a difference).
That better suitability consists of the fact that, on a conformal projection, at any point, the scale is the same in every direction.
Maling described the obvious, simple, and natural procedure: For any particular region, use the scale in that region. Because the map is conformal, the scale will be the same in every direction at any point (or approximately, in any small region).
A quick easy way:
Estimate the scale in a graticule quadrangle as I described above.
If the route goes into a different graticule quadrangle, then estimate the scale in that graticule quadrangle in the same way.
For more accuracy:
If the scale can be conveniently calculated for any point on the map, then calculate the scale for appropriate points along the route, to numerically integrate the reciprocal of the scale with respect to distance along the route.
In other words:
:Let x represent distance along the route. Let y(x) be the reciprocal of the scale at x.
Numerically integrate y with respect to x, along the route.
For example, for Newton-Cotes methods, you’d choose equal intervals of distance along the route, evaluating y at equal x–intervals. For Gauss integration, you’d choose the x values at which to evaluate y, in the manner that Gauss calls for.
Michael Ossipoff